That's the thing about statistics. Statistically speaking, unlikely things should sometimes occur, but people will always impute meaning to things which are meaningless. Which isn't to say that it isn't interesting.
I dont understand the odds though. Here in FL we have a six number Lotto and the odds are like one in fifty million to hit it. So how can hitting 6 numbers be one in four million?
For those of you who aren't LOST fans... Lottery numbers 04-15-23-24-35-42 LOST numbers....04-08-15-16-23-42
The odds in the article about two consecutive draws being the same do seem low. In a fifty number field/six number draw the odds of picking all six is 14 million to 1. So how does the two day/same numbers odds end up at 4 million to 1? It all seems strange to me, especially the fact that 18 people picked those same six numbers for the next draw. Who picks the complete set of numbers that just won?
What makes the maths appear skewed is that you're thinking of the chances of getting one set of numbers on two days running. Of course, what you should be interested in is the chance of finding /any/ set of numbers the same on two days running.
There's a similar problem about how many people do you have to have in a room before there's a better than even chance of two of them sharing a birthday. Turns out to be around 23, not the 180 or so you might expect. The reason is there are a lot of possible birthdays, but most people think only from their own perspective - i.e. how many people share /their/ birthday, not how many people share /any/ birthday.
There's a Wiki page which explains the maths and which can easily be extended to the lottery figures.
Catskill, I don't know how the Florida lottery works, but maybe the odds are better in the Bulgarian one because they're picking six numbers from a smaller range? Like picking six numbers from 1-45 instead of 1-50 or so? Just a guess.
Skipweasel, here's another way to think of it: Suppose there are 5 million possible number combinations in a particular lottery. No matter what combination of six numbers comes up one day, the numbers the following day have a one-in-five-million chance of being the same.
the fact that those are most of the LOST numbers but not all leads me to conclude that Jack's plan worked and that the Incident changed two of the numbers.
Its clearly an electro magnetic computer error fraud, electro magnets can be switched on to 'pull' the balls while looking completely natural, this is how it is done all over the world.How did a british presenter call' 25' before the ball was even droppred!! he was either psychic or knew what the selected balls were before hand, but these are very rich organisations and they can brush aything under the carpet..
http://www.wilottery.com/lottogames/apick3.asp
6-6-6
I saw it happen live on TV.
That's the thing about statistics. Statistically speaking, unlikely things should sometimes occur, but people will always impute meaning to things which are meaningless. Which isn't to say that it isn't interesting.
Lottery numbers 04-15-23-24-35-42
LOST numbers....04-08-15-16-23-42
The odds in the article about two consecutive draws being the same do seem low. In a fifty number field/six number draw the odds of picking all six is 14 million to 1. So how does the two day/same numbers odds end up at 4 million to 1? It all seems strange to me, especially the fact that 18 people picked those same six numbers for the next draw. Who picks the complete set of numbers that just won?
There's a similar problem about how many people do you have to have in a room before there's a better than even chance of two of them sharing a birthday. Turns out to be around 23, not the 180 or so you might expect. The reason is there are a lot of possible birthdays, but most people think only from their own perspective - i.e. how many people share /their/ birthday, not how many people share /any/ birthday.
There's a Wiki page which explains the maths and which can easily be extended to the lottery figures.
http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Birthday_problem
Skipweasel, here's another way to think of it: Suppose there are 5 million possible number combinations in a particular lottery. No matter what combination of six numbers comes up one day, the numbers the following day have a one-in-five-million chance of being the same.
I suspect that the one mathematician's odds are off because, frankly,many if not most mathematicians know squat about probability calculations.
By the way, reports are that 3 of the same 6 numbers turned up in the NEXT drawing.
Random chance? I don't think so.
sept 6 & 10
4, 15, 23, 2*4, 3+5, 42
6 + 10 -----/---/--
/ / \
/ / |
/ / |
// |
4, 8, 15, 16, 23, 42
sept 6 & 10
4,.15,.23,.2*4,.3+5,.42
6 + 10 -----/---/--
.........../.../...\
........../../.....|
........././.......|
........//.........|
...4,...8,...15,..16, 23, 42
sept 6 & 10
4,.15,.23,.2*4,.3+5,.42
6 + 10 --/---/--
.........../.../...\
........../../.....|
........././.......|
........//.........|
...4,..8,...15,..16, 23, 42
or it could have been the incident....